Selection for the formation of a panel
of AMM (Group ‘B’) against 70% vacancy of Store Department
Test
Name
|
AMM
70% LDCE STORE DEPARTMENT
|
Total
No. of Question
|
110
Nos.
|
EXAM
DATE
|
30.01.2021
|
Test
Time
|
2
Hrs.
|
CHOOSE THE CORRECT
OPTION
SECTION -A (TECHNICAL)
Q.1 Power of Dy. CMM in HQ for invitation of
Signal Tender for Proprietary items where in PAC 6 ‘a’ is certified (in lacs)
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 25
Q.2 limit of Local purchase against Single Quotation
is Rs…...per item.
(A)
25000
(B) 50000
(C) 10000
(D) 100000
Q.3 Power of Dy. CMM in HQ in Direct sale of
surplus store to other Rlys. (In lacs)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 25
(D) Full powers
Q.4 Powers of CMM for refund of payments
towards shorter delivery of Scrap. (In lacs)
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) Full
powers
Q.5 Powers of SR. CDO/ CDO not having stores
officer can make local purchase of Passenger amenity items. (In Rs.)
(A) No power
(B) Full power
(C) 25000
(D) 1
lac
Q.6 Spot purchase proposal upto Rs.5 lacs
worth can be approved by……
(A) DY. CMM
(B) CMM
(C) PCMM
(D) DRM
Q.7 Re Fixation of DP without finance
concurrence in a stores contract can be exercised by ----only
(A) CMM
(B) PCMM
(C) AGM
(D) up
to their power of acceptance
Q.8 Upto what limit items can be procured
thro GEM any of available suppliers of GEM.
(A) 2000
(B) 10000
(C) 25000
(D) 1 lac
Q.9 There shall be no EMD for bids /RA in GEM procurement
having estimated value less than---(in lacs)
(A)
1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 30
Q.10 e-bidding/ RA invitations notice to be
published in GEM stipulating at least-----days’ time after publications
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 30
Q.11 Time elapsed from the date of
realization of need of recoupment to the physical receipt of material termed as
(A) Buffer time
(B) Interim period
(C) Contract Period
(D) Lead time
Q.12 Stock which provides for an emergency in
case of default by suppliers and also to take care of fluctuations in
consumption is known as….
(A) Emergency Stock
(B) Buffer
Stock
(C) Ordinary stores
(D) Custody stock
Q.13 Outstanding quantities against all live
purchase orders are termed as
(A) Covered
dues
(B) Uncovered dues
(C) In process dues
(D) Dead dues
Q.14 In case of imported consignment, Bill of
lading is similar to
(A) Railway
receipt
(B) Bill of entry
(C) Letter of Credit
(D) None of the above
Q.15
In case of tender accepted by Railway Board or GM, the competent authority for
granting DP extension is …….
(A)
PCMM
(B) CMM
(C) GM
(D) None of these
Q.16 The tender quantity is 200Nos. The
lowest acceptable offer is @ Rs50,000/- each + GST @ 12 %. What will be the
level of TC?
(A)
SAG LEVEL
(B) JAG LEVEL
(C) SS LEVEL
(D) None of the above
Q.17 GST is calculated on ….
(A) Basic Cost
(B) Basic cost + forwarding charges
(C) Basic
+ forwarding charges + FRT
(D) None of the above
Q.18 Inspection of items placed in Annexure B
items of RDSO vendor list for Mechanical wagon items can be done by
(A) RITES
(B) Consignee
(C) RDSO
(D) None of the above
Q.19 As per Railway Board guidelines,
provision for 30% quantity option clause has been made mandatory in tenders for
fixed quantity contracts valuing above (in lacs)
(A) 10
(B)
75
(C) 50
(D) None of the above
Q.20 Powers of PCMM to accept single Tender
purchase from stock Yards/Buffer import of M/s SAIL, TISCO, IISCO, RINL in
respect of steel items and to make 100% payment in advance to them is limited
to_____(in Cr)
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) None of the above
Q.21 Powers of PCMM to write off the
loss (without finance concurrence) due to Risk Purchase General damage,
liquidated dam, i.e. limited to Rs. …..(in lacs)
(A) 1.5 PCMM CMM-75000/- DYCMM-40000/-
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) None of the above
Q.22 As soon as the offer of the tenderer is
accepted, the contractor has to deposit SD within…. days of the posting or
written notice of acceptance.
(A) 30
(B) 25
(C) 21
(D) 14
Q.23 Offers received after closing to tender
box, but before the opening of tenders, are called...
(A) Late Tenders
(B) Delayed
Tenders
(C) Limited Tenders
(D) Post Tenders
Q.24 IRS Terms and conditions Para-2900 deals
with
(A) Consignee right of rejection
(B) Book of examination clause
(C) Arbitration
(D) Force majeure clause
Q.25 A firm has entered into a contract with
Railway to supply an item off any cost. In the eye of Law
(A) Penally can be imposed on the firm in case of
failure in supply
(B) Contract is not enforceable
(C) Contract is enforceable but penally cannot be
imposed
(D) Firm should be considered in future based on
supply contract
Q.26 In case of Rate Contract
(A) Rate & Quantity stipulated
(B) Rate
is only stipulated
(C) Rate, Quantity & Consignee stipulated
(D) None of the above
Q.27 As per IRS conditions of contract, what
is the maximum period from the date of receipt of material in which material
pre-inspected at the firm’s premises can be rejected at consignee end, if found
unsuitable? (In days)
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
Q.28 Buffer stock is also known as:
(A) Critical Stock
(B) Safety
Stock
(C) In active stock
(D) Emergency stock
Q.29 Which is following scrap item are not
condemned by the survey committee in the scrap depot?
(A) Wagon
(B) MS sheet
(C) Empty drum
(D) Coupler body
Q.30 After which value, it is necessary to
obtain quotation form more than one firm in local purchase?
(A) 2000
(B) 5000
(C) 20000
(D) 25000
Q.31 In which form, Material is not required
are returned to the nominated stores depot as per stores code?
(A)
S-1539
(B) S-1839
(C) S-1739
(D) S-1549
Q.32 EOQ is the Quantity at which
(A)
Inventory carrying cost is maximum
(B) Ware housing cost is minimum
(C) Ordering cost is minimum
(D) Inventory
carrying & ordering cost is minimum
Q.33What is the frequency of verification of
Stores with Imprest Holders?
(A) Once in a year
(B) Once
in two years
(C) Once in three years
(D) Once in 6 months
Q.34 M&P items are verified?
A) Once in a year
(B) Once in two years
(C) Once
in three years
(D) Once in four years
Q.35 Which of the following analysis gives
more attention to the service level?
(A) ABC analysis
(B) VED
analysis
(C) FNS analysis
(D) XYZ analysis
Q.36 In FOB contract, the seller bears all
the charges until the cargo
(A) Delivered to agent of shipping Co.
(B) Passes
over the railing of ship
(C) Is loaded and stacked on the vessel
(D) Delivered at the port of shipment
Q.37 As per current EXIM policy, Railway Can
import freely any item
(A) Except restricted item
(B) Not
appearing on the negative list
(C) Except prohibited items
(D) None of the above
Q.38 In Indian railways ‘A’ category items
represent what percentage to total consumption value?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Q.39 Major group of wagon components?
(A) 30
(B) 33
(C) 38
(D) 40
Q.40 What is present performance security for
stores contract to be taken on the value of Contract?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 55
(D) 10%
SECTION-B
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q.1 The Centre for Cellular and Molecular
Biology is situated at ….
(A)
Patna
(B) Jaipur
(C) Hyderabad
(D) New Delhi
Q.2 Which of the following place is famous
for the gigantic rock-cut statue of Buddha?
(A) Bamiyan
(B) Borobudur
(C) Anuradhapuram
(D) Angor
Vat
Q.3 ‘Kandla’ is situated on the Gulf of kachh
is well known for which of the following?
(A) Export Processing Zone
(B) Centre
for Marine Food Products
(C) Cutting
and polishing of diamonds
(D) Ship break Industry
Q.4 The hardest substance available on earth
is
(A) Gold
(B) Iron
(C) Diamond
(D) Platinum
Q.5 Galvanize iron sheet have a coating of
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Zink
(D) Tine
Q.6 Most soluble in water
(A) Camphor
(B) Sulphur
(C) Common
Salt
(D) Sugar
Q.7 LPG consists of mainly
(A) methane,
ethane and hexane
(B) ethane,
hexane and nonane
(C) methane,
ethane and nonane
(D) methane butane and propane
Q.8 Entomology is the science that studies
(A) Behaviour
of human beings
(B) Insects
(C)the
origin and history of technical and scientific terms
(D) The
formation of rocks
Q.9 For which of the following discipline is
Nobel Prize awarded?
(A) Physics
and Chemistry
(B) Physiology
or Medicine
(C) Literature,
Peace and Economics
(D) All of the above
(A) Taoism
(B) Judaism
(C) Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion)
(D) Shintoism
Q.11 Durand Cup is associated with the game
of
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Volleyball
Q.12 Economic Goods are
(A) all commodities that are limited in
quantity as compared to their demand
(B) Commodities
that is available according to their demand
(C)
Commodities that is available more as compared to demand
(D)
None of the above
Q.13 Free market is …….
(A) a
condition in the international market where nations do not impose customs duty
or other taxes on import of goods.
(B) market where the price of a
commodity is determined by free play of the forces of supply and demand
(C) ports
that are exempted from payment of customs duty on articles of commerce
primarily to encourage tourism
(D) None
of the above
Q.14 Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(A) started
as a maths teacher and rose to the position of the principal of Ferguson
College, Pune
(B) founded
the servants of India Society
(C) served
as President of the Indian National Congress in 1905
(D) All of the above
Q.15 Galileo was an Italian astronomer who….
(A) developed
the telescope
(B) discovered
four satellites of Jupiter
(C) discovered
that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time measurement
(D) All of the above
Q.16 The ore which is found in abundance in
India is …..
(A) Monazite
(B) fluorspar
(C) bauxite
(D) magnetite
Q.17 The human body is made up of several
chemical elements the element present in the highest proportion (65%) in the
body is …
(A) carbon
(B) hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) nitrogen
Q.18 The India’s highest annual rainfall is
reported at…
(A) Namchi,
Sikkim
(B) Churu,
Rajasthan
(C) Mawsynram, Meghalaya
(D) Chamba,
Himachal Pradesh
Q.19 The only private sector refinery set up
by Reliance Petroleum Ltd is located at….
(A) Guwahati
(B) Jamnagar
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Q.20 Which of the following societies has
instituted an award for an outstanding parliamentarian?
(A) Jamnalal
Bajaj foundation
(B) Institute
of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies
(C) G B Pant Memorial Society
(D) R
D Birla Samarak Kosh
Q.21 The highest civilian award of India
‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far One of them is Nelson
Mandela. The other is ……
(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(B) Mikhail
Gorbachev
(C) Marshal
Tito
(D) Abdul
Wali Khan
Q.22 ‘MOV’ extension refers usually to what
kind of life?
(A) Imago
file
(B) Animation/movie file
(C) Audio
file
(D) MS
Office document
Q.23 What frequency range is the High
Frequency band?
(A)
100kHz
(B) 1GHz
(C) 30
to 300MHz
(D) 3 to 30 MHz
Q.24 The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed
below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from
(A) Rigveda
(B) Sat
path Brahmana
(C) Mundak Upanishad
(D) Ramayana
Q.25 Which of the following is not a chief
organ of the united Nation Organisations?
(A) International Labour Organisation
(B) Security
Council
(C) International
Court of Justice
(D) General
Assembly
Q.26 Which of the following countries is not
a member of SAARC? [SAARC COUNTRY:MBBS PINA]
(A) Nepal
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
Q.27 Tulsidas the author of Ramcharitmanas
was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
(A) Akbar
(B) Humayun
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Sher
Shah Suri
Q.28 Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which
of the following musical instruments?
(A) Sarod
(B) Veena
(C) Violin
(D) Sitar
Q.29Metals are good conductors of electricity
because….
(A) they
contain free electrons
(B) the
atoms are lightly packed
(C) they
have high melting point
(D) All of the above
Q.30 Who invented jet Engine?
(A) Sir Frank Whittle
(B) Gottlieb
Daimler
(C) Roger
Bacon
(D) Lewis
E. Waterman
SECTION -B राजभाषा नीति एवं संवैधानिक उपबंध संबंधी प्रश्न
Q.31 राजभाषा अधिनियम 1963 कब पारित हुआ था?
(A)
01.10.1963
(B) 20.03.1964
(C) 14.09.1950
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं 10.5.1963
Q.32 वार्षिक कार्यक्रम के अनुसार ‘ख’
क्षेत्र से ‘क’ क्षेत्र को कितने प्रतिशत मूल पत्राचार हिन्दी में किया जाना
अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) 85%
(B) 95%
(C) 90%
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.33 हिंदीतर भाषी क्षेत्रों के निवासियों को दिए गए आश्वासनों
को कानूनी रूप देने के लिए पारित अधिनियम क्या हैं?
(A) राजभाषा (संशोधित) अधिनियम -1968
(B) राजभाषा (संशोधित) अधिनियम -1987
(C) राजभाषा (संशोधित)
अधिनियम -1967
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.34 संबंधित मंत्रालय/ विभाग में हिन्दी के प्रचार में प्रगति
की समीक्षा किस समिति द्वारा की जाती हैं?
(A) संसदीय राजभाषा समिति
(B) संसदीय राजभाषा की दूसरी उप समिति
(C) हिन्दी सलाहकार
समिति
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.35 राजभाषा पर वार्षिक कार्यक्रम कौन तैयार करता हैं?
(A) रक्षा मंत्रालय
(B) शिक्षा मंत्रालय
(C) गृह मंत्रालय
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.36 हिन्दी पाठ्यक्रम में प्रशिक्षित होने
के लिए केंद्र सरकार के कर्मचारियों को कौन-सी प्रशिक्षण सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं?
(A) पत्राचार एवं प्राइवेट
(B) नियमित, गहन एवं पत्राचार
(C) नियमित, गहन, पत्राचार एवं प्राइवेट
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.37 हिन्दी पाठ्यक्रमों में प्रशिक्षित
होने के लिए कौन योग्य होंगे?
(A) केंद्र सरकार के सभी कर्मचारी व अधिकारी
(B) केंद्र सरकार के सभी कर्मचारी
(C) केंद्र सरकार के श्रेणी iii कर्मचारी व उससे ऊपर के अधिकारी
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.38 आम जनता द्वारा प्रयोग किए जाने वाले
फार्मों को किस क्रम में तैयार किया जाता हैं?
(A) त्रिभाषी (1.
प्रादेशिक 2. अंग्रेजी 3. हिन्दी)
(B) त्रिभाषी (1.
अंग्रेजी 2. हिन्दी 3. प्रादेशिक)
(C) त्रिभाषी (1. प्रादेशिक 2. हिन्दी 3.
अंग्रेजी)RHE
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.39 ‘क’ क्षेत्र के अधिकारियों के द्वारा
कितने प्रतिशत हिन्दी में टिप्पण किया जाना अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.40 वर्ष में हिन्दी सलाहकार समिति की
कितनी बैठकें अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) एक बैठकें
(B) तीन बैठकें
(C) दो बैठकें
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
SECTION -C Establishment
& Financial Rule
Q.1 Which of the following
statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeal Rule in Railway?
(A) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968
(B) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966
(C) The
Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(D) None of these
Q.2 Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968
does specify the penalties?
(A) Rule-9
(B) Rule-11
(C) Rule-6
(D) None
of these
Q.3 If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this case should dealt with
by the …..
(A) Disciplinary Authority
(B) Revising Authority
(C) The
next higher authority
(D) None of these
Q.4 What would be correct procedure when a
faulty charge- sheet requires modification/ addition.
(A)
Cancelling the earlier C/sheet with reasons
(B) Without cancelling a fresh C/sheet may be
issued
(C) Continue the proceedings
(D) None of these
Q.5 Which deduction from subsistence
allowance cannot be made?
(A)
House Rent
(B) P.F. Subscription
(C)
Income Tax
(D)
Travelling Allowance
Q.6 Review of suspension cases is done
(A) After 4 Months
(B) After
3 Months
(C) After 2 Months
(D) None of these
Q.7 Pre-Selection coaching need not require
where no SC/ST vacancy is available in:
(A)
All selections
(B) All non-selections
(C) Selection to safety category
(D) None of these
Q.8 Best among the failed candidates may be
given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written test minimum: -
(A) 10% Marks
(B) 20%
Marks
(C) 30% Marks
(D) 35% Marks
Q.9 50% limitation for filling up of SC/ST
vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is applicable
(A) On total back-log vacancy
(B) On
current vacancy
(C) Both backlog & current vacancies
(D) None of these
Q.10 Who is the authority to declare a post
as selection or non-selection?
(A) AGM
(B) PHOD
(C) Railway
Board
(D) DRM
Q.11 What number of staff are to be called in
a selection of Gr ‘C’ post?
(A) Equal to the number of vacancy
(B) 3times
the number of vacancy
(C) 5 times the number of vacancy
(D) None of these
Q.12 The life of a selection panel is-
(A) 06 months
(B) 01 year
(C) 02
year
(D) None of these
Q.13 Railway provide physical facilities to
the KVs on nominal fees on
(A) Short term lease
(B) long
term lease
(C) Permanent facilities
(D) None of these
Q.14 Store advance is required to be debited
to____
(A)
Miscellaneous head
(B) Advance head
(C) Salary head
(D) None of these
Q.15 Break journey is not permissible in case
of -----
(A) Transfer Pass
(B) School Pass
(C) Settlement
Pass
(D) Post Retd. Complimentary Pass
Q.16 On what grounds a 1st class
School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holder
(A)
Studying in Sindia School/ Gwalior
(B) Studying in South point School/Kolkata
(C) Studying in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur
(D) Studying
in Oak Grove School/ Jharipani/ Dehradun
Q.17 On what routes Pass can be issued?
(A) Any route
(B) Shortest
route & longest route but quicker
(C) Longest route
(D) Shortest route with 30% of the longest route
Q.18 How many days of LHAP can be accumulated
to an employee in his service life?
(A) 300 days
(B) 450 days
(C) 600 days
(D) Unlimited
Q.19 A male railway servant may be granted
Paternity leave having surviving children
(A)
Less than two
(B) One
(C) Four
(D) Three
Q.20 Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for
the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding …. If leave granted outside
India.
(A) 200 Days
(B) 240
Days
(C) 230 Days
(D) 250 Days
Q.21 Which of the following category is
entitled for hospital leave?
(A) Group-A
(B) Group-B
(C) Group-C
(D) Group-D
Q.22 What is the maximum period of leave on
Average pay at time that a Railway servant may be granted?
(A) 120 days
(B) 160 days
(C) 180
days
(D) 300 days
Q.23 A Railway shall be granted leave of any
kind for a continuous period of not exceeding……
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5
years
(D) 6 years
Q.24 When was the Railway Budget merged with
General Budget.
(A) 2016-17
(B) 2017-18
(C) 2018-19
(D) 2019-20
Q.25 The plan head for stores suspense is
-----
(A) PH-17
(B) PH-41
(C) PH-71
(D) PH-77
Q.26 Store budget is part of demand no______
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 16
Q.27 Money allotted for purchase of stock
items is called….
(A) Purchase Money
(B) Purchase Balance
(C) Purchase Suspense
(D) Purchase
Grant
Q.28 The detailed distribution of budget
allotment made to railway administrations is contained in
(A) Yellow Book
(B) Green Book
(C) Pink
Book
(D) White Book
Q.29 All charges for maintenance and repairs
after opening of the line for traffic are accounted under head.
(A) Capital
(B) DRF
(C) OLW
(D) Ordinary
Revenue
Q.30 Raw material issued to private factory
for fabrication shall be charged to
(A) WMS
(B) SINT
(C) Sales Suspense
(D) Misc
Adv Capital
THANK YOU
यदि आपको लगता हैं की ये ^ आपके किसी NEAR AND DEAR की मदद कर सकता हैं तो जरूर उनके साथ शेयर कीजिए। REQUEST करना मेरे हाथ में और SHARE करना आपके हाथ में।
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