Tuesday, June 8, 2021

SOLVED QUESTION PAPER OF AMM (Group ‘B’) AGAINST 70% VACANCY OF STORE DEPARTMENT OF SECR HELD ON 30.01.2021

 

INDIAN RAILWAY


Selection for the formation of a panel of AMM (Group ‘B’) against 70% vacancy of Store Department

Test Name

AMM 70% LDCE STORE DEPARTMENT

Total No. of Question

110 Nos.

EXAM DATE

30.01.2021

Test Time

2 Hrs.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION

SECTION -A    (TECHNICAL)

Q.1 Power of Dy. CMM in HQ for invitation of Signal Tender for Proprietary items where in PAC 6 ‘a’ is certified (in lacs)

(A)   5

(B)   10

(C)   15

(D)   25

Q.2 limit of Local purchase against Single Quotation is Rs…...per item.

(A)  25000      

(B)  50000

(C)   10000

(D)   100000

Q.3 Power of Dy. CMM in HQ in Direct sale of surplus store to other Rlys. (In lacs)

(A)   1

(B)   2

(C)   25

(D)   Full powers

Q.4 Powers of CMM for refund of payments towards shorter delivery of Scrap. (In lacs)

(A)   25

(B)   50

(C)   100

(D)   Full powers

Q.5 Powers of SR. CDO/ CDO not having stores officer can make local purchase of Passenger amenity items. (In Rs.)

(A)   No power

(B)   Full power

(C)   25000

(D)   1 lac 

Q.6 Spot purchase proposal upto Rs.5 lacs worth can be approved by……

(A)  DY. CMM     

(B)   CMM

(C)   PCMM

(D)   DRM

Q.7 Re Fixation of DP without finance concurrence in a stores contract can be exercised by ----only

(A)   CMM

(B)   PCMM

(C)   AGM

(D)   up to their power of acceptance

Q.8 Upto what limit items can be procured thro GEM any of available suppliers of GEM.

(A)   2000

(B)   10000

(C)   25000

(D)   1 lac 

Q.9 There shall be no EMD for bids /RA in GEM procurement having estimated value less than---(in lacs)

(A) 1       

(B)   5

(C)   10

(D)   30

Q.10 e-bidding/ RA invitations notice to be published in GEM stipulating at least-----days’ time after publications

(A)   10

(B)   14

(C)   21

(D)   30

Q.11 Time elapsed from the date of realization of need of recoupment to the physical receipt of material termed as

(A)   Buffer time

(B)   Interim period

(C)   Contract Period

(D)   Lead time

Q.12 Stock which provides for an emergency in case of default by suppliers and also to take care of fluctuations in consumption is known as….

(A)   Emergency Stock

(B)   Buffer Stock

(C)   Ordinary stores

(D)   Custody stock

Q.13 Outstanding quantities against all live purchase orders are termed as

(A)   Covered dues

(B)   Uncovered dues

(C)   In process dues

(D)   Dead dues

Q.14 In case of imported consignment, Bill of lading is similar to

(A)   Railway receipt

(B)   Bill of entry

(C)   Letter of Credit

(D)   None of the above 

Q.15 In case of tender accepted by Railway Board or GM, the competent authority for granting DP extension is …….

(A)  PCMM   

(B)   CMM

(C)   GM

(D)   None of these 

Q.16 The tender quantity is 200Nos. The lowest acceptable offer is @ Rs50,000/- each + GST @ 12 %. What will be the level of TC?

(A)  SAG LEVEL

(B)   JAG LEVEL

(C)   SS LEVEL

(D)   None of the above 

Q.17 GST is calculated on ….

(A)   Basic Cost

(B)   Basic cost + forwarding charges

(C)   Basic + forwarding charges + FRT    

(D)   None of the above 

Q.18 Inspection of items placed in Annexure B items of RDSO vendor list for Mechanical wagon items can be done by

(A)   RITES

(B)   Consignee

(C)   RDSO

(D)   None of the above

Q.19 As per Railway Board guidelines, provision for 30% quantity option clause has been made mandatory in tenders for fixed quantity contracts valuing above (in lacs)

(A)   10

(B)  75    

(C)   50

(D)   None of the above 

Q.20 Powers of PCMM to accept single Tender purchase from stock Yards/Buffer import of M/s SAIL, TISCO, IISCO, RINL in respect of steel items and to make 100% payment in advance to them is limited to_____(in Cr)

(A)   10

(B)   5

(C)   2

(D)   None of the above 

Q.21 Powers of PCMM to write off the loss (without finance concurrence) due to Risk Purchase General damage, liquidated dam, i.e. limited to Rs. …..(in lacs)

(A)   1.5    PCMM    CMM-75000/-     DYCMM-40000/-

(B)   5

(C)   2

(D) None of the above       

Q.22 As soon as the offer of the tenderer is accepted, the contractor has to deposit SD within…. days of the posting or written notice of acceptance.

(A)   30

(B)   25

(C)   21

(D)   14

Q.23 Offers received after closing to tender box, but before the opening of tenders, are called...

(A)   Late Tenders

(B)   Delayed Tenders

(C)   Limited Tenders

(D)   Post Tenders 

Q.24 IRS Terms and conditions Para-2900 deals with

(A)   Consignee right of rejection

(B)   Book of examination clause

(C)   Arbitration

(D)   Force majeure clause 

Q.25 A firm has entered into a contract with Railway to supply an item off any cost. In the eye of Law

(A)   Penally can be imposed on the firm in case of failure in supply

(B)   Contract is not enforceable  

(C)   Contract is enforceable but penally cannot be imposed

(D)   Firm should be considered in future based on supply contract 

Q.26 In case of Rate Contract

(A)   Rate & Quantity stipulated

(B)   Rate is only stipulated

(C)   Rate, Quantity & Consignee stipulated

(D)   None of the above 

Q.27 As per IRS conditions of contract, what is the maximum period from the date of receipt of material in which material pre-inspected at the firm’s premises can be rejected at consignee end, if found unsuitable? (In days)

(A)   30

(B)   45

(C)   60

(D)   90 

Q.28 Buffer stock is also known as:

(A)   Critical Stock

(B)   Safety Stock

(C)   In active stock

(D)   Emergency stock 

Q.29 Which is following scrap item are not condemned by the survey committee in the scrap depot?

(A)   Wagon

(B)   MS sheet

(C)   Empty drum

(D)   Coupler body 

Q.30 After which value, it is necessary to obtain quotation form more than one firm in local purchase?

(A)   2000

(B)   5000

(C)   20000

(D)   25000

Q.31 In which form, Material is not required are returned to the nominated stores depot as per stores code?

(A)  S-1539

(B)   S-1839

(C)   S-1739

(D)   S-1549 

Q.32 EOQ is the Quantity at which

(A) Inventory carrying cost is maximum  

(B)   Ware housing cost is minimum

(C)   Ordering cost is minimum

(D)   Inventory carrying & ordering cost is minimum 

Q.33What is the frequency of verification of Stores with Imprest Holders?

(A)   Once in a year

(B)   Once in two years

(C)   Once in three years

(D)   Once in 6 months 

Q.34 M&P items are verified?

A)    Once in a year

(B)   Once in two years

(C)   Once in three years

(D)   Once in four years 

Q.35 Which of the following analysis gives more attention to the service level?

(A)   ABC analysis

(B)   VED analysis

(C)   FNS analysis

(D)   XYZ analysis 

Q.36 In FOB contract, the seller bears all the charges until the cargo

(A)   Delivered to agent of shipping Co.

(B)   Passes over the railing of ship

(C)   Is loaded and stacked on the vessel    

(D)   Delivered at the port of shipment 

Q.37 As per current EXIM policy, Railway Can import freely any item

(A)   Except restricted item

(B)   Not appearing on the negative list

(C)   Except prohibited items

(D)   None of the above 

Q.38 In Indian railways ‘A’ category items represent what percentage to total consumption value?

(A)   20%

(B)   30%

(C)   50%

(D)   70% 

Q.39 Major group of wagon components?

(A)   30

(B)   33

(C)   38

(D)   40 

Q.40 What is present performance security for stores contract to be taken on the value of Contract?

(A)   2%

(B)   3%

(C)   55

(D)   10%

SECTION-B GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 

Q.1 The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is situated at ….

(A) Patna

(B) Jaipur

(C) Hyderabad

(D) New Delhi

Q.2 Which of the following place is famous for the gigantic rock-cut statue of Buddha?

(A) Bamiyan

(B) Borobudur

(C) Anuradhapuram

(D) Angor Vat

Q.3 ‘Kandla’ is situated on the Gulf of kachh is well known for which of the following?

(A) Export Processing Zone

(B) Centre for Marine Food Products

(C) Cutting and polishing of diamonds

(D)  Ship break Industry 

Q.4 The hardest substance available on earth is

(A) Gold

(B) Iron

(C) Diamond

(D) Platinum 

Q.5 Galvanize iron sheet have a coating of

(A) Lead

(B) Chromium

(C) Zink

(D) Tine 

Q.6 Most soluble in water

(A) Camphor

(B) Sulphur

(C) Common Salt

(D) Sugar 

Q.7 LPG consists of mainly

(A) methane, ethane and hexane

(B) ethane, hexane and nonane

(C) methane, ethane and nonane

(D) methane butane and propane 

Q.8 Entomology is the science that studies

(A) Behaviour of human beings

(B) Insects

(C)the origin and history of technical and scientific terms

(D) The formation of rocks 

Q.9 For which of the following discipline is Nobel Prize awarded?

(A) Physics and Chemistry

(B) Physiology or Medicine

(C) Literature, Peace and Economics

(D) All of the above

 Q.10 Fire temple is the place of worship of which of the following religion

(A) Taoism

(B) Judaism

(C) Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion)

(D) Shintoism

Q.11 Durand Cup is associated with the game of

(A) Cricket

(B) Football

(C) Hockey

(D) Volleyball 

Q.12 Economic Goods are

(A) all commodities that are limited in quantity as compared to their demand

(B) Commodities that is available according to their demand

(C) Commodities that is available more as compared to demand

(D) None of the above 

Q.13 Free market is …….

(A) a condition in the international market where nations do not impose customs duty or other taxes on import of goods.

(B) market where the price of a commodity is determined by free play of the forces of supply and demand

(C) ports that are exempted from payment of customs duty on articles of commerce primarily to encourage tourism

(D) None of the above 

Q.14 Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(A) started as a maths teacher and rose to the position of the principal of Ferguson College, Pune

(B) founded the servants of India Society

(C) served as President of the Indian National Congress in 1905

(D) All of the above 

Q.15 Galileo was an Italian astronomer who….

(A) developed the telescope

(B) discovered four satellites of Jupiter

(C) discovered that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time measurement

(D) All of the above 

Q.16 The ore which is found in abundance in India is …..

(A) Monazite

(B) fluorspar

(C) bauxite

(D) magnetite 

Q.17 The human body is made up of several chemical elements the element present in the highest proportion (65%) in the body is …

(A) carbon

(B) hydrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) nitrogen 

Q.18 The India’s highest annual rainfall is reported at…

(A) Namchi, Sikkim

(B) Churu, Rajasthan

(C) Mawsynram, Meghalaya

(D) Chamba, Himachal Pradesh 

Q.19 The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Ltd is located at….

(A) Guwahati

(B) Jamnagar

(C) Mumbai

(D) Chennai 

Q.20 Which of the following societies has instituted an award for an outstanding parliamentarian?

(A) Jamnalal Bajaj foundation

(B) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies

(C) G B Pant Memorial Society

(D) R D Birla Samarak Kosh 

Q.21 The highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is ……

(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(B) Mikhail Gorbachev

(C) Marshal Tito

(D) Abdul Wali Khan 

Q.22 ‘MOV’ extension refers usually to what kind of life?     

(A) Imago file

(B) Animation/movie file

(C) Audio file

(D) MS Office document 

Q.23 What frequency range is the High Frequency band?

(A) 100kHz

(B) 1GHz

(C) 30 to 300MHz

(D) 3 to 30 MHz 

Q.24 The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from

(A) Rigveda

(B) Sat path Brahmana

(C) Mundak Upanishad

(D) Ramayana 

Q.25 Which of the following is not a chief organ of the united Nation Organisations?

(A) International Labour Organisation

(B) Security Council

(C) International Court of Justice

(D) General Assembly 

Q.26 Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?  [SAARC COUNTRY:MBBS PINA]

(A) Nepal

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Afghanistan

(D) Myanmar 

Q.27 Tulsidas the author of Ramcharitmanas was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?

(A) Akbar

(B) Humayun

(C) Shahjahan

(D) Sher Shah Suri 

Q.28 Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?

(A) Sarod

(B) Veena

(C) Violin

(D) Sitar 

Q.29Metals are good conductors of electricity because….

(A) they contain free electrons

(B) the atoms are lightly packed

(C) they have high melting point

(D) All of the above 

Q.30 Who invented jet Engine?

(A) Sir Frank Whittle

(B) Gottlieb Daimler

(C) Roger Bacon

(D) Lewis E. Waterman 

SECTION -B राजभाषा नीति एवं संवैधानिक उपबंध संबंधी प्रश्न     

 

Q.31 राजभाषा अधिनियम 1963 कब पारित हुआ था?

(A)  01.10.1963

(B)  20.03.1964

(C)  14.09.1950

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  10.5.1963 

Q.32 वार्षिक कार्यक्रम के अनुसार ‘ख’ क्षेत्र से ‘क’ क्षेत्र को कितने प्रतिशत मूल पत्राचार हिन्दी में किया जाना अपेक्षित हैं?

(A)  85%

(B)  95%

(C)  90%

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.33 हिंदीतर भाषी क्षेत्रों के निवासियों को दिए गए आश्वासनों को कानूनी रूप देने के लिए पारित अधिनियम क्या हैं?

(A)  राजभाषा (संशोधित) अधिनियम -1968

(B)  राजभाषा (संशोधित) अधिनियम -1987

(C)  राजभाषा (संशोधित) अधिनियम -1967

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं   

Q.34 संबंधित मंत्रालय/ विभाग में हिन्दी के प्रचार में प्रगति की समीक्षा किस समिति द्वारा की जाती हैं?

(A) संसदीय राजभाषा समिति  

(B) संसदीय राजभाषा की दूसरी उप समिति

(C)  हिन्दी सलाहकार समिति

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.35 राजभाषा पर वार्षिक कार्यक्रम कौन तैयार करता हैं?

(A)  रक्षा मंत्रालय

(B)  शिक्षा मंत्रालय

(C)  गृह मंत्रालय

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.36 हिन्दी पाठ्यक्रम में प्रशिक्षित होने के लिए केंद्र सरकार के कर्मचारियों को कौन-सी प्रशिक्षण सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं?

(A)  पत्राचार एवं प्राइवेट  

(B)  नियमित, गहन एवं पत्राचार

(C)  नियमित, गहन, पत्राचार एवं प्राइवेट

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.37 हिन्दी पाठ्यक्रमों में प्रशिक्षित होने के लिए कौन योग्य होंगे?

(A)  केंद्र सरकार के सभी कर्मचारी व अधिकारी

(B)  केंद्र सरकार के सभी कर्मचारी

(C)  केंद्र सरकार के श्रेणी iii कर्मचारी व उससे ऊपर के अधिकारी

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.38 आम जनता द्वारा प्रयोग किए जाने वाले फार्मों को किस क्रम में तैयार किया जाता हैं?

(A)  त्रिभाषी (1.  प्रादेशिक 2. अंग्रेजी 3. हिन्दी)

(B)  त्रिभाषी (1.  अंग्रेजी 2. हिन्दी 3. प्रादेशिक)

 (C) त्रिभाषी (1.  प्रादेशिक 2. हिन्दी 3. अंग्रेजी)RHE

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.39 ‘क’ क्षेत्र के अधिकारियों के द्वारा कितने प्रतिशत हिन्दी में टिप्पण किया जाना अपेक्षित हैं?

(A) 100%

(B)  50%

(C)  75%

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Q.40 वर्ष में हिन्दी सलाहकार समिति की कितनी बैठकें अपेक्षित हैं?

(A)  एक बैठकें

(B)  तीन बैठकें

(C)  दो बैठकें

(D)  इनमें से कोई नहीं  

SECTION -C    Establishment & Financial Rule     

Q.1 Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeal Rule in Railway?

(A)   The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968

(B)   The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966

(C)   The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968

(D)   None of these 

Q.2 Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?

(A)   Rule-9

(B)   Rule-11

(C)   Rule-6

(D) None of these   

Q.3 If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this case should dealt with by the …..

(A)   Disciplinary Authority

(B)   Revising Authority

(C)   The next higher authority

(D)   None of these 

Q.4 What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge- sheet requires modification/ addition.

(A)   Cancelling the earlier C/sheet with reasons

(B)   Without cancelling a fresh C/sheet may be issued

(C)   Continue the proceedings

(D)   None of these 

Q.5 Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?

(A) House Rent     

(B) P.F. Subscription

(C) Income Tax

(D) Travelling Allowance 

Q.6 Review of suspension cases is done

(A)   After 4 Months

(B)   After 3 Months

(C)   After 2 Months

(D)   None of these 

Q.7 Pre-Selection coaching need not require where no SC/ST vacancy is available in:

(A)   All selections

(B)   All non-selections

(C)   Selection to safety category

(D)   None of these 

Q.8 Best among the failed candidates may be given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written test minimum: -

(A)   10% Marks

(B)   20% Marks

(C)   30% Marks

(D)   35% Marks 

Q.9 50% limitation for filling up of SC/ST vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is applicable

(A)   On total back-log vacancy

(B)   On current vacancy

(C)   Both backlog & current vacancies

(D)   None of these 

Q.10 Who is the authority to declare a post as selection or non-selection?

(A)   AGM

(B)   PHOD

(C)   Railway Board

(D)   DRM 

Q.11 What number of staff are to be called in a selection of Gr ‘C’ post?

(A)   Equal to the number of vacancy  

(B)   3times the number of vacancy      

(C)   5 times the number of vacancy

(D)   None of these 

Q.12 The life of a selection panel is-

(A)   06 months

(B)   01 year

(C)   02 year

(D)   None of these 

Q.13 Railway provide physical facilities to the KVs on nominal fees on

(A)   Short term lease

(B)   long term lease

(C)   Permanent facilities

(D)   None of these 

Q.14 Store advance is required to be debited to____

(A)   Miscellaneous head

(B)   Advance head

(C)   Salary head

(D)   None of these 

Q.15 Break journey is not permissible in case of -----

(A)   Transfer Pass

(B)   School Pass

(C)   Settlement Pass

(D)   Post Retd. Complimentary Pass 

Q.16 On what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holder

(A) Studying in Sindia School/ Gwalior    

(B)   Studying in South point School/Kolkata

(C)   Studying in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur

(D)   Studying in Oak Grove School/ Jharipani/ Dehradun 

Q.17 On what routes Pass can be issued?

(A)   Any route

(B)   Shortest route & longest route but quicker

(C)   Longest route

(D)   Shortest route with 30% of the longest route 

Q.18 How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employee in his service life?

(A)   300 days

(B)   450 days

(C)   600 days

(D)   Unlimited 

Q.19 A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children

(A)   Less than two

(B)   One

(C)   Four

(D)   Three 

Q.20 Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding …. If leave granted outside India.

(A)   200 Days

(B)   240 Days

(C)   230 Days

(D)   250 Days 

Q.21 Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?

(A)  Group-A

(B)   Group-B

(C)   Group-C

(D)   Group-D 

Q.22 What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant may be granted?

(A)   120 days

(B)   160 days

(C)   180 days

(D)   300 days 

Q.23 A Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not exceeding……

(A)   3 years

(B)   4 years

(C)   5 years

(D)   6 years 

Q.24 When was the Railway Budget merged with General Budget.

(A)   2016-17

(B)   2017-18

(C)   2018-19

(D)   2019-20 

Q.25 The plan head for stores suspense is -----

(A)   PH-17

(B)   PH-41

(C)   PH-71

(D)   PH-77

Q.26 Store budget is part of demand no______

(A)   11

(B)   12

(C)   13

(D)   16

Q.27 Money allotted for purchase of stock items is called….

(A)   Purchase Money

(B)   Purchase Balance

(C)   Purchase Suspense

(D)   Purchase Grant 

Q.28 The detailed distribution of budget allotment made to railway administrations is contained in

(A)   Yellow Book

(B)   Green Book

(C)   Pink Book

(D)   White Book

Q.29 All charges for maintenance and repairs after opening of the line for traffic are accounted under head.

(A)  Capital

(B)   DRF

(C)   OLW

(D)   Ordinary Revenue 

Q.30 Raw material issued to private factory for fabrication shall be charged to

(A)   WMS

(B)   SINT

(C)   Sales Suspense

(D)   Misc Adv Capital 


THANK YOU 


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