|
|
SET # 5
Selection
for the formation of a panel of AMM (Group ‘B’) against 70% vacancy of Store
Department
Test Name
|
AMM 70% LDCE STORE DEPARTMENT
|
Total No. of Question
|
110 Nos.
|
EXAM DATE
|
30.01.2021
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Test Time
|
2 Hrs.
|
CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION
SECTION -A
(TECHNICAL)
Q.1 Power
of Dy. CMM in HQ for invitation of Signal Tender for Proprietary items where in
PAC 6 ‘a’ is certified (in lacs)
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 25
Q.2 limit
of Local purchase against Single Quotation is Rs…...per item.
(A)
25000
(B)
50000
(C) 10000
(D) 100000
Q.3 Power
of Dy. CMM in HQ in Direct sale of surplus store to other Rlys. (In lacs)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 25
(D) Full
powers
Q.4 Powers
of CMM for refund of payments towards shorter delivery of Scrap. (In lacs)
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) Full
powers
Q.5 Powers
of SR. CDO/ CDO not having stores officer can make local purchase of Passenger
amenity items. (In Rs.)
(A) No
power
(B) Full
power
(C) 25000
(D) 1
lac
Q.6 Spot
purchase proposal upto Rs.5 lacs worth can be approved by……
(A)
DY. CMM
(B) CMM
(C) PCMM
(D) DRM
Q.7 Re
Fixation of DP without finance concurrence in a stores contract can be
exercised by ----only
(A) CMM
(B) PCMM
(C) AGM
(D) up
to their power of acceptance
Q.8 Upto
what limit items can be procured thro GEM any of available suppliers of GEM.
(A) 2000
(B) 10000
(C) 25000
(D) 1
lac
Q.9 There
shall be no EMD for bids /RA in GEM procurement having estimated value less
than---(in lacs)
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 30
Q.10 e-bidding/
RA invitations notice to be published in GEM stipulating at least-----days’
time after publications
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 30
Q.11 Time
elapsed from the date of realization of need of recoupment to the physical
receipt of material termed as
(A) Buffer
time
(B) Interim
period
(C) Contract
Period
(D) Lead
time
Q.12 Stock
which provide for an emergency in case of default by suppliers and also to take
care of fluctuations in consumption is known as….
(A) Emergency
Stock
(B) Buffer
Stock
(C) Ordinary
stores
(D) Custody
stock
Q.13 Outstanding
quantities against all live purchase orders are termed as
(A) Covered
dues
(B) Uncovered
dues
(C) In
process dues
(D) Dead
dues
Q.14 In
case of imported consignment, Bill of lading is similar to
(A) Railway
receipt
(B) Bill
of entry
(C) Letter
of Credit
(D) None
of the above
Q.15 In case of tender accepted by Railway
Board or GM, the competent authority for granting DP extension is …….
(A)
PCMM
(B) CMM
(C) GM
(D) None
of these
Q.16 The
tender quantity is 200Nos. The lowest acceptable offer is @ Rs50,000/- each +
GST @ 12 %. What will be the level of TC?
(A)
SAG LEVEL
(B) JAG
LEVEL
(C) SS
LEVEL
(D) None
of the above
Q.17 GST
is calculated on ….
(A) Basic
Cost
(B) Basic
cost + forwarding charges
(C) Basic
+ forwarding charges + FRT
(D) None
of the above
Q.18 Inspection
of items placed in annexure B items of RDSO vendor list for Mechanical wagon
items can be done by
(A) RITES
(B) Consignee
(C) RDSO
(D) None
of the above
Q.19 As
per Railway Board guidelines, provision for 30% quantity option clause has been
made mandatory in tenders for fixed quantity contracts valuing above (in lacs)
(A) 10
(B)
75
(C) 50
(D) None of the above
Q.20 Powers
of PCMM to accept single Tender purchase from stock Yards/Buffer import of M/s
SAIL, TISCO, IISCO, RINL in respect of steel items and to make 100% payment in
advance to them is limited to_____(in Cr)
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) None
of the above
Q.21 Powers
of PCMM to write off the loss (without finance concurrence) due
to Risk Purchase General damage, liquidated dam, i.e. limited to Rs. …..(in
lacs)
(A) 1.5 PCMM CMM-75000/- DYCMM-40000/-
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) None of the above
Q.22 As
soon as the offer of the tenderer is accepted, the contractor has to deposit SD
within…. days of the posting or written notice of acceptance.
(A) 30
(B) 25
(C) 21
(D) 14
Q.23 Offers
received after closing to tender box, but before opening of tenders, are called...
(A) Late
Tenders
(B) Delayed
Tenders
(C) Limited
Tenders
(D) Post
Tenders
Q.24 IRS
Terms and conditions Para-2900 deals with
(A) Consignee
right of rejection
(B) Book
of examination clause
(C) Arbitration
(D) Force
majeure clause
Q.25 A
firm has entered into a contract with Railway to supply an item off any cost.
In the eye of Law
(A) Penally
can be imposed on the firm in case of failure in supply
(B) Contract is not enforceable
(C) contract
is enforceable but penally cannot be imposed
(D) Firm
should be considered in future based on supply contract
Q.26 In
case of Rate Contract
(A) Rate
& Quantity stipulated
(B) Rate
is only stipulated
(C) Rate,
Quantity & Consignee stipulated
(D) None
of the above
Q.27 As
per IRS conditions of contract, what is the maximum period from the date of
receipt of material in which material pre-inspected at the firm’s premises can
be rejected at consignee end, if found unsuitable? (In days)
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
Q.28
Buffer stock is also known as:
(A) Critical
Stock
(B) Safety
Stock
(C) In
active stock
(D) Emergency
stock
Q.29 Which
is following scrap item are not condemned by the survey committee in the scrap
depot?
(A) Wagon
(B) MS
sheet
(C) Empty
drum
(D) Coupler
body
Q.30 After
which value, it is necessary to obtain quotation form more than one firm in
local purchase?
(A) 2000
(B) 5000
(C) 20000
(D) 25000
Q.31 In which
form, Material is not required are returned to the nominated stores depot as
per stores code?
(A)
S-1539
(B) S-1839
(C) S-1739
(D) S-1549
Q.32 EOQ
is the Quantity at which
(A) Inventory carrying cost is maximum
(B) Ware
housing cost is minimum
(C) Ordering
cost is minimum
(D) Inventory
carrying & ordering cost is minimum
Q.33What
is the frequency of verification of Stores with Imprest Holders?
(A) Once
in a year
(B) Once
in two years
(C) Once
in three years
(D) Once
in 6 months
Q.34 M&P
items are verified?
A) Once
in a year
(B) Once
in two years
(C) Once
in three years
(D) Once
in four years
Q.35 Which
of the following analysis gives more attention to the service level?
(A) ABC
analysis
(B) VED
analysis
(C) FNS
analysis
(D) XYZ
analysis
Q.36 In
FOB contract, the seller bears all the charges until the cargo
(A) Delivered
to agent of shipping Co.
(B) Passes
over the railing of ship
(C) Is
loaded and stacked on the vessel
(D) Delivered
at the port of shipment
Q.37 As
per current EXIM policy, Railway Can import freely any item
(A) Except
restricted item
(B) Not
appearing on the negative list
(C) Except
prohibited items
(D) None
of the above
Q.38 In
Indian railways ‘A’ category items represent what percentage to total consumption
value?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Q.39 Major
group of wagon components?
(A) 30
(B) 33
(C) 38
(D) 40
Q.40 What
is present performance security for stores contract to be taken on the value of
Contract?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 55
(D) 10%
SECTION -B GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q.1 The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is situated at ….
(A) Patna
(B) Jaipur
(C) Hyderabad
(D) New Delhi
Q.2 Which
of the following place is famous for the gigantic rock-cut statue of Buddha?
(A) Bamiyan
(B) Borobudur
(C) Anuradhapuram
(D) Angor Vat
Q.3 ‘Kandla’
is situated on the Gulf of kachh is well known for which of the following?
(A) Export Processing Zone
(B) Centre for Marine Food Products
(C) Cutting and polishing of diamonds
(D) Ship
break Industry
Q.4 The
hardest substance available on earth is
(A) Gold
(B) Iron
(C) Diamond
(D) Platinum
Q.5 Galvanize
iron sheet have a coating of
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Zink
(D) Tine
Q.6 Most
soluble in water
(A) Camphor
(B) Sulphur
(C) Common Salt
(D) Sugar
Q.7 LPG
consists of mainly
(A) methane, ethane and hexane
(B) ethane, hexane and nonane
(C) methane, ethane and nonane
(D) methane butane and propane
Q.8 Entomology
is the science that studies
(A) Behaviour of human beings
(B) Insects
(C)the origin and history of technical and
scientific terms
(D) The formation of rocks
Q.9 For
which of the following discipline is Nobel Prize awarded?
(A) Physics and Chemistry
(B) Physiology or Medicine
(C) Literature, Peace and Economics
(D) All of the above
Q.10 Fire
temple is the place of worship of which of the following religion
(A) Taoism
(B) Judaism
(C) Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion)
(D) Shintoism
Q.11 Durand
Cup is associated with the game of
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Vollyball
Q.12 Economic
Goods are
(A) all commodities that are limited in
quantity as compared to their demand
(B) Commodities that is available according
to their demand
(C) Commodities that is available more as
compared to demand
(D) None of the above
Q.13 Free
market is …….
(A) a condition in the international market
where nations do not impose do not impose customs duty or other taxes on import
of goods.
(B) market where the price of a commodity
is determined by free play of the forces of supply and demand
(C) ports that are exempted from payment of
customs duty on articles of commerce primarily to encourage tourism
(D) None of the above
Q.14 Gopal
Krishna Gokhale
(A) started as a maths teacher and rose to
the position of the principal of Ferguson College, Pune
(B) founded the servants of India Society
(C) served as President of the Indian National
Congress in 1905
(D) All of the above
Q.15 Galileo
was an Italian astronomer who….
(A) developed the telescope
(B) discovered four satellites of Jupiter
(C) discovered that the movement of
pendulum produces a regular time measurement
(D) All of the above
Q.16 The
ore which is found in abundance in India is …..
(A) Monazite
(B) fluorspar
(C) bauxite
(D) magnetite
Q.17 The
human body is made up of several chemical elements the element present in the
highest proportion(65%) in the body is …
(A) carbon
(B) hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) nitrogen
Q.18 The
India’s highest annual rainfall is reported at…
(A) Namchi, Sikkim
(B) Churu, Rajasthan
(C) Mawsynram, Meghalaya
(D) Chamba, Himachal Pradesh
Q.19 The
only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Ltd is located at….
(A) Guwahati
(B) Jamnagar
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Q.20 Which
of the following societies has instituted an award for an outstanding
parliamentarian?
(A) Jamnalal Bajaj foundation
(B) Institute of Constitutional and
Parliamentary Studies
(C) G B Pant Memorial Society
(D) R D Birla Samarak Kosh
Q.21 The
highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two
foreigners so far One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is ……
(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(B) Mikhail Gorbachev
(C) Marshal Tito
(D) Abdul Wali Khan
Q.22’MOV’ extension
refers usually to what kind of life?
(A) Imago file
(B) Animation/movie file
(C) Audio file
(D) MS Office document
Q.23 What
frequency range is the High Frequency band?
(A) 100kHz
(B) 1GHz
(C) 30 to 300MHz
(D) 3 to 30 Mhz
Q.24 The
words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India
are taken from
(A) Rigveda
(B) Sat path Brahmana
(C) Mundak Upanishad
(D) Ramayana
Q.25 Which
of the following is not a chief organ of the united Nation Organisations?
(A) International Labour Organisation
(B) Security Council
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) General Assembly
Q.26 Which
of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
Q.27 Tulsidas
the author of Ramcharitmanas was a contemporary of which of the following
rulers?
(A) Akbar
(B) Humayun
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Sher Shah Suri
Q.28 Amjad
Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?
(A) Sarod
(B) Veena
(C) Violin
(D) Sitar
Q.29Metals
are good conductors of electricity because….
(A) they contain free electrons
(B) the atoms are lightly packed
(C) they have high melting point
(D) All of the above
Q.30 Who
invented jet Engine?
(A) Sir Frank Whittle
(B) Gottlieb Daimler
(C) Roger Bacon
(D) Lewis E. Waterman
SECTION -B राजभाषा नीति एवं संवैधानिक उपबंध संबंधी प्रश्न
Q.31 राजभाषा अधिनियम
1963 कब पारित हुआ था?
(A) 01.10.1963
(B) 20.03.1964
(C) 14.09.1950
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.32 वार्षिक
कार्यक्रम के अनुसार ‘ख’ क्षेत्र से ‘क’ क्षेत्र को कितने प्रतिशत मूल पत्राचार
हिन्दी में किया जाना अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) 85%
(B) 95%
(C) 90%
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.33 हिंदीतर भाषी क्षेत्रों के
निवासियों को दिए गए आश्वासनों को कानूनी रूप देने के लिए पारित अधिनियम क्या हैं?
(A) राजभाषा
(संशोधित) अधिनियम -1968
(B) राजभाषा
(संशोधित) अधिनियम -1987
(C) राजभाषा
(संशोधित) अधिनियम -1967
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.34 संबंधित
मंत्रालय/ विभाग में हिन्दी के प्रचार में प्रगति की समीक्षा किस समिति द्वारा की
जाती हैं?
(A) संसदीय राजभाषा समिति
(B) संसदीय राजभाषा की दूसरी उप समिति
(C) हिन्दी सलाहकार समिति
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.35 राजभाषा पर वार्षिक कार्यक्रम कौन तैयार करता हैं?
(A)
रक्षा मंत्रालय
(B) शिक्षा मंत्रालय
(C) गृह मंत्रालय
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.36 हिन्दी पाठ्यक्रम
में प्रशिक्षित होने के लिए केंद्र सरकार के कर्मचारियों को कौन-सी प्रशिक्षण
सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं?
(A) पत्राचार एवं
प्राइवेट
(B) नियमित, गहन एवं
पत्राचार
(C) नियमित, गहन,
पत्राचार एवं प्राइवेट
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q.37 हिन्दी
पाठ्यक्रमों में प्रशिक्षित होने के लिए कौन योग्य होंगे?
(A)
केंद्र सरकार के सभी कर्मचारी व अधिकारी
(B) केंद्र सरकार के
सभी कर्मचारी
(C) केंद्र सरकार के
श्रेणी iii कर्मचारी व उससे ऊपर के अधिकारी
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.38 आम जनता द्वारा
प्रयोग किए जाने वाले फार्मों को किस क्रम में तैयार किया जाता हैं?
(A)
त्रिभाषी (1. प्रादेशिक 2. अंग्रेजी
3. हिन्दी)
(B) त्रिभाषी
(1. अंग्रेजी 2. हिन्दी 3. प्रादेशिक)
(C) त्रिभाषी
(1. प्रादेशिक 2. हिन्दी 3. अंग्रेजी)
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.39 ‘क’ क्षेत्र के
अधिकारियों के द्वारा कितने प्रतिशत हिन्दी में टिप्पण किया जाना अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) इनमें से कोई
नहीं
Q.40 वर्ष में हिन्दी
सलाहकार समिति की कितनी बैठकें अपेक्षित हैं?
(A) एक बैठकें
(B) तीन बैठकें
(C) दो बैठकें
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
SECTION -C Establishment & Financial Rule
Q.1 Which of the following
statement do bear the title of discipline and Appeal Rule in Railway?
(A)
The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968
(B) The
Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966
(C) The
Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(D) None
of these
Q.2 Which
of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?
(A)
Rule-9
(B) Rule-11
(C) Rule-6
(D) None of these
Q.3 If the
disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case,
this case should dealt with by the …..
(A) Disciplinary
Authority
(B) Revising
Authority
(C) The
next higher authority
(D) None
of these
Q.4 What
would be correct procedure when a faulty charge- sheet requires modification/
addition.
(A)
Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons
(B) Without
canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued
(C) Continue
the proceedings
(D) None
of these
Q.5 Which
deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?
(A) House Rent
(B) P.F. Subscription
(C) Income Tax
(D) Travelling Allowance
Q.6 Review
of suspension, cases is done
(A) After
4 Months
(B) After
3 Months
(C) After
2 Months
(D) None
of these
Q.7 Pre-Selection
coaching need not require where no SC/ST vacancy is available in:
(A)
All selections
(B) All
non-selections
(C) Selection
to safety category
(D) None
of these
Q.8 Best
among the failed candidates may be given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written
test minimum: -
(A) 10%
Marks
(B) 20%
Marks
(C) 30%
Marks
(D) 35%
Marks
Q.9 50%
limitation for filling up of SC/ST vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is
applicable
(A)
On total back-log vacancy
(B) On
current vacancy
(C) Both
backlog & current vacancies
(D) None of these
Q.10 Who
is the authority to declare a post as selection or non-selection?
(A)
AGM
(B) PHOD
(C) Railway
Board
(D) DRM
Q.11 What
number of staff are to be called in a selection of Gr ‘C’ post?
(A) Equal
to the number of vacancy
(B) 3times
the number of vacancy
(C) 5
times the number of vacancy
(D) None
of these
Q.12 The
life of a selection panel is-
(A)
06 months
(B) 01
year
(C) 02
year
(D) None
of these
Q.13 Railway
provide physical facilities to the KVs on nominal fees on
(A) Short
term lease
(B) long
term lease
(C) Permanent
facilities
(D) None
of these
Q.14 Store
advance is required to be debited to____
(A)
Miscellaneous head
(B) Advance
head
(C) Salary
head
(D) None of these
Q.15 Break
journey is not permissible in case of -----
(A)
Transfer Pass
(B) School
Pass
(C) Settlement
Pass
(D) Post
Retd. Complimentary Pass
Q.16 On
what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd
class pass holder
(A) Studying in Sindia School/ Gwalior
(B) Studying
in South point School/Kolkata
(C) Studying
in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur
(D) Studying
in Oak Grove School/ Jharipani/ Dehradun
Q.17 On
what routes Pass can be issued?
(A)
Any route
(B) Shortest
route & longest route but quicker
(C) Longest
route
(D) Shortest
route with 30% of the longest route
Q.18 How
many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employee in his service life?
(A)
300 days
(B) 450
days
(C) 600
days
(D) Unlimited
Q.19 A
male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children
(A)
Less than two
(B) One
(C) Four
(D) Three
Q.20 Gazetted
officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding
…. If leave granted outside India.
(A)
200 Days
(B) 240
Days
(C) 230
Days
(D) 250
Days
Q.21 Which
of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?
(A)
Group-A
(B) Group-B
(C) Group-C
(D) Group-D
Q.22 What
is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant
may be granted?
(A) 120
days
(B) 160
days
(C) 180
days
(D) 300
days
Q.23 A
Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not
exceeding……
(A) 3
years
(B) 4
years
(C) 5
years
(D) 6
years
Q.24 When
was the Railway Budget merged with General Budget.
(A)
2016-17
(B) 2017-18
(C) 2018-19
(D) 2019-20
Q.25 The
plan head for stores suspense is -----
(A) PH-17
(B) PH-41
(C) PH-71
(D) PH-77
Q.26 Store
budget is part of demand no______
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 16
Q.27 Money
allotted for purchase of stock items is called….
(A)
Purchase Money
(B) Purchase
Balance
(C) Purchase
Suspense
(D) Purchase
Grant
Q.28 The
detailed distribution of budget allotment made to railway administrations is
contained in
(A) Yellow
Book
(B) Green
Book
(C) Pink
Book
(D) White
Book
Q.29 All
charges for maintenance and repairs after opening of the line for traffic are
accounted under head.
(A)
Capital
(B) DRF
(C) OLW
(D) Ordinary
Revenue
Q.30 Raw
material issued to private factory for fabrication shall be charged to
(A) WMS
(B) SINT
(C) Sales
Suspense
(D) Misc
Adv Capital
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