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Pre qualifying Single Paper written Examnination
Test Name
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APO (Group B) 70% LDCE Quota -PERSONNEL DEPARTMENT
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Total No. of Question
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100
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Test Time
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Two Hours
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Q.1 Who is currently looking after the function of Member
Staff, Railway Board?
(A) Suneet Sharma
(B) Vinod Kumar Yadav
(C) Manoj Pande
(D) None of the above
Q.2 Railway Servants in level I can be eligible for promotion to Leve 2 only after completion of how many years of regular service?
(A) Three (B) Two (C)
Five (D) one and half
Q.3 Where a Selection panel has been approved by ADRM, the proposal for modification of the panel is to be done by which appropriate authority?
(A) DRM
(B) PHOD of
concerned department
(C) HOD of the concerned department
(D) AGM
Q.4 Contract Labour Act 1970 is applicable where
engagement of how many laborers?
(A) 20 or more
(B) 10 or more
(C)15 or more
(D)
Any number
Q.5 According to ID Act which is the term related to
failure, refusal, or inability of an employer to provide employment to his
workmen?
(A) Lockout
(B) Retrenchment
(C) Dismissal from service
(D) Lay Off
Q.6 Which category among the following is covered
under the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal(CAT)?
(A) Members of Defence
Force
(B) Staff of Department of
Posts
(C)Secretarial Staff of
Parliament
(D) Staff of Supreme
Court
Q.7 Under Factory Act 1948, a child is a person who
has not completed how many years of age?
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 18
Q.8 Railway Servants Hours of Employment Rule 1961 was
frame under which Act?
(A)Industrial Disputes
Act
(B) Industrial Relations
Act
(C) Indian Railway Act n Railways Act, 1989.
(D) Trade Union Act
Q.9 Which among the following is not covered by staff
benefit Fund?
(A) Promotion of Cultural
Activities
(B) Promotion of Sports
Activities
(C) Promotion of
Cleanliness in Stations
(D) Promotion of indigenous
systems of medicine
Q.10 What does UMID stand for
(A) Universal Medical
Inquiry Department
(B) Universal Materials
Inventory Directory
(C) unique Medical
Identity card
(D) Unique Medical
Inventory Directory
Q.11 Who is the present Additional Member Staff,
Railway Board?
(A) Urvila Khati
(B)
Arvind Kumar
(C) Rajesh Tiwari
(D)
Anand Khati
Q.12 What is the minimum salary limit for applicability of an employee to be covered under the Payment of Wages act?
(A) Rs.10000 PM
(B) Rs.18000 PM
(C) Rs.6500 PM
(D) Rs.12000
PM
Q.13 After how many hours of rest can an employee of intensive classification be called
for duty again?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 06
(D)
12
Q.14 In the Railway context what does PREM stand for?
(A) Primary Railway
Establishment Manual
(B) Progressive Railway
Employees meeting
(C) Personnel Record of
Employee Management
(D) Participation of Railway
Employees in Management
Q.15 Where is the Indian Railway Institute of Civil
Engineering Situated
(A) Pune
(B) Lucknow
(C) Varanasi
(D) Nagpur
Q.16 What is the additional quantum of pension granted to a retired employee after crossing80 years of age?
(A) 15 %
(B) No addition
(C) 20%
(D) 10%
Q.17 Which of the following is true of Central
Administrative Tribunals (CAT)?
(A) Bound by procedures
under Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Guided by Principles
of Natural Justice
(C) Can hear Writ Petitions
(D) All of the above
Q.18 For which of the following situations an employee
maybe deemed to be Suspended?
(A) For fined for Traffic
Violation
(B) Detained in Police
custody for 12 Hours
(C) Summoned by Police
for questioning
(D) Detained in Police
custody for 48 Hours
Q.19 After filing an FIR report on a missing person,
and he does not return, after how many years can he be presumed dead?
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Three
(D) Two
Q.20 Who among the following is covered under the
Employees Compensation Act?
(A) Defence Personnel
(B)
Railway Workshop staff
(C) Railway Trackmen
(D) Office Peons
Q.21 Including Chairman how many members make the
Railway Board?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Nine
(D) Five
Q.22 Where is the Indian Railway Institute of Electrical
Engineering Situated?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Nasik
(C) Allahabad
(D) Kolkata
Q.23 Which Judicial body has the powers to decide on a dispute regarding HOER and give a final decision on the same?
(A) Central
Administrative Tribunal
(B) High Court
(C) Regional Labour
Commissioner
(D) Industrial Tribunal
Q.24 According to ID Act what is the minimum notice
period for retrenchment of a regular Employee?
(A) Thirty Days
(B) Sixty Days
(C) Ninety Days
(D)
Fifteen Days.
Q.25 The CSBF Committee in the Railway is chaired by
which authority?
(A) General Manager
(B) PFA
(C) AGM
(D) CPO
Q.26 What is the Ex gratia Lumpsum compensation
granted to the family in case of a death in the course of and arising out of
duty?
(A) 10 lakhs
(B)
25 lakhs
(C) 15 lakhs
(D)
20 lakhs
Q.27 Under which of the following circumstances an
application in a particular CAT can be filed?
(A) The applicant should be working within the geographical jurisdiction of the CAT Concerned
(B) The course of actions
falls within the jurisdiction of the CAT
(C) Applicant is a
retired employee residing within the jurisdiction of the CAT
(D) All of the Above
Q.28 What is the required periodicity of holding PNM
meeting with a recognized union at
Railway level?
(A) Once in two months
(B) Once in Six months
(C) Once in four months
(D) Once in three months
Q.29 When salary and wages of employees are drawn from
the budget of a specified project what are such posts called?
(A) Supernumerary Posts
(B) Contract Posts
(C) Work charged Posts
(D) Shadow Posts
Q.30 The Railway Recruitment Boards are administered
by which authority?
(A) General Manager
(B) Principal Chief
Personnel Officer
(C) Secretary, Railway
Board
(D) Railway Recruitment Control Board
Q.31 What does COFMOW stand for?
(A) Controlling
Organization for Management of Wagons
(B) Central Organization
for Manufacturing of Wagons
(C) Coordinating
Organization for Merger of Wages
(D) Central Organization
for Modernisation of Workshops
Q.32 Appointment on Compassionate grounds to a ‘near
relative’ is possible under which of the following conditions?
(A) The widow cannot take
up appointment herself
(B) All the children are
minor
(C) Widow certifies that
the near relative would act as her bread winner
(D) All of the above
Q.33 How many persons can be recruited by a Railway
against Cultural quota in a year?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) Not Prescribed.
Q.34 An employee’s ACR can be filled by his supervisory authority only if he has worked under his for a minimum period of ____________months.
(A) Twelve
(B) Ten
(C) Six
(D) Three
Q.35 Which of the following are the three tiers of
Permanent Negotiating Machinery (PNM) in Railway?
(A) Railway level,
Railway Board level, Ministry level
(B) Railway level, Zonal level,
Railway Board level,
(C) Railway level,
Railway Board level, Tribunal level
(D) None of the above
Q.36 Where is the Indian Railway Institute of
Engineering & Tele-Communications situated?
(A) Pune
(B) Secunderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Vadodara
Q.37 Written statement of Defence to be submitted
within what period of time after receipt of SF-5
(A)30 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days
Q.38 In the Union agenda for PNM how many new subjects
can be included?
(A) 30
(B) 20
(C) 50
(D) No limit
Q.39 What percentage of pay is the monthly
contribution according to New Pension Scheme?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 08
(D) 14
Q.40 Which Article of the Constitution of India confers
the powers of a High Court to hear a Writ Petition?
(A) Article 226
(B) Article19
(C) Article35
(D)
Article238
Q.41 The new name of
Railway staff College Vadodara is
(A) National College for Railway Employees
(B) National Academy of Railway officers
(C) National Academy of Indian Railway
(D) Indian Railway Academy of Training
Q.42 What is the time
limit for filling review application in CAT?
(A) Ninety days from receipt of
order
(B) Sixty days from receipt of order
(C) Thirty days from receipt of order
(D) Forty Five days from receipt of order
Q.43 What is Hours of
Employment Rules (HOER) is now known as?
(A) Railway Servants Hours
of Work and Period of Rest Rules 2006
(B) Railway Servants of Hours of
Work and Employment Rules 2008
(C) Hours of Employment and Rest
Regulations 2005
(D) None of the above
Q.44 In which of the
following situations Appeal against Disciplinary action can be preferred?
(A) Order made by President of India
(B)
Order enhancing a penalty
(C) Order of interlocutory nature
(D) Order passed by I.O in the course of the
inquiry
Q.45 How many posts
can be set apart for recruitment against Scouts and Guides Quota
in a year by a Zonal Railway
(A) Two Group C Posts only
(B) Two Group D Posts only
(C) Two Group C plus two group D per division
(D) Two Group C plus One group D per division
Q.46 Which of the following were covered under the LARGESS Scheme?
(A) Pointsman
(B) Loco pilot
(C) Trackman
(D)
All of the above
Q.47 Under what conditions adopted son or daughter can be given compassionate ground appointment?
(A) The adoption is legally valid
(B) Adoption allowed under Personal Law of the employee concerned
(C) Adoption process completed before the death of the employee
(D) All of the above
Q.48 Reservation for which of the following categories is considered Horizontal Reservation?
(A) Scheduled Castes
(B)
OBC
(C) Ex-Servicemen
(D) Scheduled Tribes
Q.49 New Pension
scheme is effective from which date?
(A) 01.01.2004
(B) 01.03.2014
(C) 01.04.2010
(D) 01.06.2008
Q.50 Running staff
who are held up at any station other than their headquarter due to an accident
for a period exceeding_____________hours is eligible for Accident allowance.
(A) Eight Hours
(B)
Ten Hours
(C) Twelve Hours
(D) Twenty four Hours
Q.51 Rail Wheel Factory is Situated in
(A) Varanasi
(B) Kapurthala
(C) Yellahanka
(D) Patiala
Q.52 For an
‘Intensive Worker’ what is defined as ‘long on’
(A) Six Hours
(B) Twelve Hours
(C) Ten Hours
(D) Eight
Hours
Q.53 Which is the
standard Form to be issued when minor penalty is to be imposed in a case where
major penalty charge sheet was already issued?
(A) SF 6
(B) SF
11(b)
(C) SF 12
(D) SF
11 ( c )
Q.54 How many members
from staff, side are permitted in the National Council
(A)15
(B)30
(C)10
(D) 20
Q.55 What is the quantum
of reservation prescribed in recruitment for Persons with Disability?
(A)3%
(B)
1%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
Q.56 To which
department in Railway does IRICEN impart training?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Electrical
(C) Civil Engineering
(D) Signal & Telecommunications
Q.57 What is NIVARAN
associated with?
(A) Finalisation of DAR cases
(B) Settlement of Pension related issues
(C) Online registration for Transfers
(D) Online redressal of Grievances
Q.58 Process of
Inquiry in DAR is governed by which of the following?
(A) Civil Procedure Code
(B) Public Servants (Inquiries) Act 1850
(C) Indian Railway Act
(D) Industrial Disputes Act
Q.59 What is the
period of Paternity leave eligible for a male employee?
(A) 07 Days
(B) 30 Days
(C) 15 Days
(D) 10 Days
Q.60 What is the maximum number of days of Leave Not Due an employee can avail at a time?
(A) 300 Days
(B) 360 Days
(C) 180 Days
(D) 90 Days
Q.61 Which among the
following is an autonomous body of Indian Railway?
(A) COFMOW
(B) RDSO
(C) CRIS
(D) CORE
Q.62 Which among the following categories is covered under reservation for persons
with disability?
(A) Cancer Patients
(B) Person with Locomotor disability
(C) Person with congenital heart disease
(D) Persons with stammering
Q.63 Which Article of
the constitution empowers the Supreme Court to hear a Writ Petition?
(A) Article14
(B) Article22
(C) Article25
(D) Article 32
Q.64 Where is Rail
Coach Factory (RCF) Situated?
(A) Yellahanka
(B) Perambur
(C) Patiala
(D)
Kapurthala
Q.65 T which of the following does Compassionate allowance apply to?
(A) Voluntarily Retired Employees
(B) Employee awaiting Compassionate Ground appointment
(C) Employee discharged due to medical reasons
(D) Employee dismissed from service
Q.66Which among the following is the latest initiative in the Personnel sector of Indian Railway?
(A) LARGESS
(B)
IREPS
(C) HRMS
(D)SWATCH BHARAT
Q.67 Where is the
institute of Rail Transport situated?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Vadodara
(C) Nagpur
(D)
Bhuvaneswar
Q.68 Provision to
Remove/dismiss an employee without conducting inquiry is granted by which section
of the DAR?
(A) 13(a)
(B) 11(c)
(C) 14(ii)
(D) 15(i)
Q.69 If a Railway
employee in a period of twelve hours working has one period of inaction of not
less than one hour, or two such periods of no less than half an hour each, then
what is his job classified as?
(A) Continuous
(B)
Intensive
(C) Essentially Intermittent
(D)
None of the above
Q.70 Where is the
Head Office of RDSO situated?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Noida
(C) Rae Bareilly
(D) Lucknow
Q.71 Investigation of
arrear claims of Rupees one lakh within a period of three years can be
sanctioned by which appropriate authority?
(A) PFA
(B) DRM
(C) GM
(D) PHOD Concerned
Q.72 Staff I Level 1
can go on mutual transfer to a post of a cadre of another Division or Unit even
if it is not a “corresponding cadre”. How true is this?
(A) Not True
(B) True if vacancy available
(C) True if Medical classification allows.
(D) True if the recognized Unions agree
Q.73 Which of the
following allowances are exempted from attachment due to court order
(A) Travelling Allowance
(B) House Rent Allowance
(C) Children’s Education Allowance
(D) All of the above
Q.74 For grant of Educational Allowance grant of Tuition fee incurred excludes which
of the
following?
(A) Admission Fee
(B) Extra Curricular activity fees
(C) Library Fee
(D) All of the above
Q.75 What kind of pay
is that which a Railway servant would be entitled if he held the post
substantively and were performing its duties?
(A) Personal pay
(B) Presumptive pay
(C) Special Pay
(D) None of the above
Q.76 Which of the following will affect the next increment date of an employee?
(A) Period of Suspension
(B) Period of Leave without pay
(C) Period for Extraordinary Leave
(D) All of the above
Q.77 Which among the
following is a compulsory deduction from an employee’s salary?
(A) Railway Club subscription
(B) Railway School fees
(C) House ret and allied charges
(D) Recovery of Advance from PF
Q.78 Under which
classified Head does the earnings from Commercial Publicity, Catering, Sales
Proceeds, Interests, Maintenance charges on sidings, etc are included?
(A) Commercial earnings
(B) sundry earnings
(C) Miscellaneous earnings
(D) None of the above
Q.79 Under Which Demand
does expenditure proposals for Staff welfare come?
(A) Demand No.16
(B) Demand No. 15
(C) Demand No.06
(D) Demand No.11
Q.80 Which of the
following is true regarding grant of Additional Charge allowance?
(A) The period should be over 45 days at a stretch
(B) The maximum period is six months
(C) The two posts are independent of each other
(D) All of the above
Q.81 Which of the
following is associated with canons of financial Propriety?
(A) Expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion
demands
(B) No order of
financial sanction should be passed in one’s own advantage
(C) A & B
(D) A only
Q.82 For which of the
following situations, Dearness allowance is not eligible?
(A) Period of Suspension
(B) Period of Study Leave
(C) Joining Time Period
(D) None of the above
Q.83 Of the
following, Reappropriation of grants under which Demand is not permitted?
(A) Demand No.16
(B) Demand No.11
(C) Demand No.10
(D) all of the above
Q.84 What is the current rate for calculating interest earned on Provident Fund(for 2021)?
(A) 7.9%
(B) 8%
(C) 8.3%
(D)
7.1%
Q.85 Which category
among the following is not eligible for washing allowance?
(A) Paramedical staff of Railway hospitals
(B) Teacher in Railway Schools
(C) Staff Car drivers
(D) AC Coach attendants
Q.86 What is the current rate of Dearness Relief?
(A) 10% (B)
09%
(C) 17% (D) 08 %
Q.87 Within what
period a Draft Para is to be disposed?
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) One Week
(D) Ten days.
Q.88 In the context
of Budget Review, when is the Final Modification done every year?
(A) August
(B) November
(C) March
(D) February
Q.89 For a transfer
involving more than 20 Kms, what is the Composite Transfer Grant eligible?
(A) One month’s basic pay
(B) 80% of Basic Salary
(C) 75% of Basic Pay
(D) None of the above
Q.90 Amongst the
following categories, who are not eligible for Night Duty Allowance?
(A) Continuous
(B) Intensive
(C) Essentially Intermittent
(D) Excluded
Q.91 What does PRIME
Stand for?
(A) Pay Related Interactive Module
(B) Pay Rate intervention Module
(C) Pay Related Independent Module
(D) None of the above
Q.92 What of the
following allowances has been discontinued since 2008?
(A) House Rent Allowance (HRA)
(B) City Compensatory Allowance (CCA)
(C) Special Compensatory Allowance (SCA)
(D) All of the above
Q.93 Which among the
following is an optional deduction from an employee’s salary?
(A) Contribution to Group insurance Scheme
(B) Recovery of Advance for Vehicle
(C) Recovery of loan from Co-Operative Society
(D) All of the above
Q.94 To be eligible for drawl of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work?
(A) 6 Kms
(B) 8 Kms
(C) 10 Kms
(D) 12 Kms
Q.95 What is the time
limit for submission of claims for Travel allowance?
(A) One Year
(B) Six Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Sixty Days
Q.96 What is the maximum amount that can be availed for the purchase of Motor Cycle/Scooter in
Railways?
(A) Rs. 1.5 lakhs
(B) Rs. 2.5 lakhs
(C) Rs. 3 lakhs
(D) Rs. 3.5 lakhs
Q.97 In what way new entrants
in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme?
(A) By option
(B) Without option
(C) By Administrative Choice
(D) None of the above
Q.98 How many digits
has the PPO Number?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 12
Q.99 What is the term
ARPAN related to in Railways?
(A) Grievance Redressal
(B) Staff Welfare
(C) Pension
(D) All of the above
Q.100 What is the
financial limit for DRM to float a tender at a single instance?
(A) 4 lakhs
(B) 10 lakhs
(C) 12 lakhs
(D) 40 lakhs
Q.101 The Provisions
related to the official language of India can be amended by which of the following?
(A) Simple majority
(B)
2/3rd majority
(C) 3/4th majority
(D) Cannot be amended
Q.102 under
Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union?
(A) Hindi
(B) Sanskrit
(C) English
(D)
A and C
Q.103 Which among the
following is the Official language for communication between the state and another
state and the union?
(A) 349
(B) 346
(C) 243
(D)
305
Q.104 Which among the
following is the Official language in India?
(A) Hindi in Pali Script
(B) Hindi in any script
(C) Hindi in Devanagari Script
(D)
All of the above
Q.105 In which year
did the parliament enact the Official
Language Act?
(A) 1963
(B) 1964
(C) 1965
(D) 1966
Q.106 Which Part of
the Constitution deals with the Official Languages Act?
(A) Part XV
(B) Part XVI
(C) Part XVII
(D) Part XVIII
Q.107 In 1955 The
President appointed an Official Language Commission under the Chairmanship of
whom?
(A)B.G. Kher (B) S.K. Khar
(C) H.N. Kunzru (D) G.B Pant
Q.108 Which of the Following
is /are true?
1) The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official Language of that state.
2) The Proceedings of the Supreme Court are to be carried out in English or Hindi only.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of the above
Q.109 At Present how
many languages are enlisted in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C)21
(D) 22
Q.110 When is Hindi Day
celebrated every year?
(A) August 13
(B) September 14
(C) September 22
(D) September 20
Thank you
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Good set of questions, Thank you. But where are the answers of these questions?
ReplyDeleteFebruary 23,2021 LDCE exam question paper for APO where are answers of these question
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